I have read that a lender must automatically remove PMI once your LTV is 78% of the original amount financed. I have a single loan, and I bought the property well below market value. Since my loan is not 2 years old the lender will not remove PMI with a simple apprasial. Is the lender required to remove PMI if I use a 2nd on the property to pay down on the first to get below the 78%.
To add a little more detail. I bought this house prior to selling my old one. Now that my old one is sold I find I am a few percentage points away from achieving the 78%
I’m not so sure the bank has a real say once I get to 78% from the original finance amount. The Homeowners protection act(1998) seems to indicate that they have to remove it by law.
THEY HAVE TO REMOVE IT.
I would speak to a supervisor concerning this, and work up the ladder to a manager. You wont need to do an appraisal if you can prove it’s 78% of the original amount financed. THIS INFO IS ON YOUR CLOSING DOCUMENTS!
I would call them EVERYDAY to get it off.
SEND THEM A CERTIFIED LETTER DEMANDING TO TAKE IT OFF OR YOU WILL TAKE THEM TO COURT.
By the way….piggybacks are when you take out a 2nd loan simultaneously with the 1st mortgage.
Stand alone seconds or 2nd mortgages are when you take it out AFTERWARDS.
BEWARE that if you take out this 2nd mortgage…and you plan to refi later on…this will be called a CASH OUT refinance because you didnt take it out the day of your 1st closing.